Quote:
Originally Posted by Ajax
That’s a gross misinterpretation of how determining cause of death works, particularly the importance of underlying causes. When someone stops breathing because they have emphysema, their heart stops and they die. Primary cause is either respiratory failure or cardiac arrest, depending on how technical the coroner wants to be. Underlying cause is emphysema. You can make the same analogy using virtually all natural deaths. Just because emphysema wasn’t the primary cause doesn’t make it any less important.
In your example, if someone was dying of malignant cancer, and caught COVID, but was asymptomatic and it didn’t impact his health at all..
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First bold is acknowledging that, at the end of the day, immediate, intermediate, and underlying causes can be changed based on "how technical they wanted to be" as opposed to a rigid system that demands accuracy. This will be proven wrong shortly.
Second bold is ridiculous, as covid affects you when you catch it regardless of your symptoms. They would list covid in some capacity if covid was detected at all.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ajax
and he then died from cancer.. COVID would not be listed as a primary OR underlying cause of death. But, if he caught COVID and it did hasten or have a role in causing his death, it would be listed appropriately as a cause of the death.
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https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5Vxf7ed3jBE
https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/covid19/cod...-reporting.htm
So here's a 3:06 video, that's on the cdcs website, literally walking you through how to properly list cause of deaths as it pertains to covid 19.
1:11 "If covid 19 is determined to be the underlying cause, it should be reported as the lowest line used in part one, with any conditions with which it gave rise, such as pneumonia or respiratory-distress, in a logical sequence on the lines above"
So no, they cant just list it how they want.
Listen to the hypothetical situation they give starting at 1:33. Pay attention to what's mentioned 1:48-1:53.
That's the glaring issue.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ajax
It’s true that most of the time, COVID is listed as an underlying cause of death. But just because it’s listed as an underlying cause of death rather than the primary doesn’t mean it wasn’t caused by COVID. That’s the way the disease works. It’s analogous to how HIV/AIDS and myriad other diseases work. They’re no less dangerous because they are a domino in the middle or at the end. What’s important is that it was part of the cause.
Making the blanket statement you did shows an extreme misunderstanding of the diagnosis process... and of how illnesses, particularly COVID, work to kill someone.
(Unless you’re trying to say that medical professionals are committing fraud on a global scale and adding COVID as a cause of death when it wasn’t. That’s a whole different issue.)
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I have a pretty good understanding of it. They just came out with some new ICD covid codes this month, but prior to that... read what code was used.
https://www.icd10data.com/ICD10CM/Co...U49/U07-/U07.1
Specifically "U07.1 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes." (In case you didn't think hospitals were getting paid for covid deaths)
Every "covid death" being reported on the news has that U07.1 code.
https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/icd/CO...ines-final.pdf
Here are the guidelines used. Notice on the very first page,
"Code only a confirmed diagnosis of the 2019 novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) as documented by the provider, documentation of a positive COVID-19 test result,
or a presumptive positive COVID-19 test result. For a confirmed diagnosis,
assign code U07.1, COVID-19. This is an exception to the hospital inpatient guideline Section II, H.
In this context, “confirmation” does not require documentation of the type of test performed; the provider’s documentation that the individual has COVID-19 is sufficient.
Presumptive positive COVID-19 test results should be
coded as confirmed. A presumptive positive test result means an individual has tested positive for the virus at a local or state level,
but it has not yet been confirmed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). CDC confirmation of local and state tests for COVID-19 is
no longer required."
I trust you can comprehend what this means.
In response to your "fraud" mention, no I don't think doctors all over the world are in on it. In fact, I think there's large portions of doctors opposed to things like the vaccine. As shown by the recent reports of how many healthcare workers specifically are refusing it.
https://www.nbcnews.com/news/us-news...ggles-n1252617
https://nypost.com/2021/01/01/alarmi...id-19-vaccine/
https://www.latimes.com/california/s...vaccine-access
What does it say when a ton of medical professionals who deal with covid up close and personal every day, refuse to take the covid vaccine??
Back to the point, there is INCENTIVE, and humans, are GREEDY by nature. And some are simply opportunistic.
https://www.hrsa.gov/coviduninsuredc...sked-questions
Here, take a look at a $2 billion dollar fund set up for reimbursing covid care providers. Scroll through, but notice the "what services are ineligible for reimbursement" section. Basically, if they don't have a positive covid test, NOTHING.
I've already provided proof how inaccurate the PCR test is. And that's the key to this whole thing. But it's not fraud if they aren't doing it intentionally.
I have seen testimony and articles of physicians being pressured by their bosses to list covid 19 when there wasn't any back in APRIL. Whether that happens a lot or a little, and for what reasons, I don't claim to know.